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The Doctrines of Grace: TULIP Revisited
by Carol Berubee
http://www.tonyabetz.org/MSM/Product/doctrinesofgrace10.htm

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Limited Atonement, Part II

A Scriptural Basis (Continued)
It may be argued that Yeshua's death did indeed purge sins and reconcile people to God, but the effect of that purging and reconciliation is only actuated when a person chooses Christ; therefore, He died for all but only some will receive the atonement. However, the Bible makes it clear that Christ came to save sinners, not just to make it possible to be saved.

Ephesians 5:25-27
"...Christ...loved the Church and gave Himself for her, that He might sanctify and cleanse her..., that He might present her to Himself a glorious Church..."

Yeshua specifically gave Himself for His Church; He did not give Himself for all people. In this context of Ephesians 5:22ff, we see that Paul is talking about Christ loving the Church and giving Himself for her in the same way that a husband loves his wife and gives himself for her. A man may love other people, but he only gives himself as a husband to his wife. God may love all of His creation in a general sense, but He only gave Himself to His Church.

John 10:15
"...I [Yeshua] lay down My life for the sheep."

Did Yeshua lay down His life for the goats? No. If He had laid down His life for all people, then He would have said so, but He specifically says He laid down His life for the sheep. When He died, He secured the salvation of all whom Father had chosen before the foundation of the world.

It is a rather low view of God to say that He intended to deliver all people from evil, but only some will actually be delivered; or that He intended to redeem all people but only some will be of His Body. Were His intentions beyond His capability? Were His intentions just wishful thinking? There is a difference between God's desires and God's intentions. The fact that God desires that all be saved does not mean that He intended to save all people but failed in that intention.

And then we have to realize that if God did not specifically save His elect at the cross, and if the atonement was made for all people, then salvation is in the hands of sinful man. Typically, if one argues for an unlimited atonement, one ends up taking the path of free will and decisional regeneration. If God has put atonement "out there" for the taking, but did not actually save anyone at the cross, then that atonement is now acquired by those who exercise their "free will" to believe and receive. To say that salvation is possible and available to all people implies that all people are capable of making that decision. If this is so, then all people are not depraved; all people are not bound by sin; and all people have some goodness in them that is capable of seeking and choosing God.

So many, in evangelism efforts, have often said to another, "Christ died for you." But if this were true, that person for whom Christ died would most certainly go to heaven. Is this what we really mean? When we tell people that Christ died for them (in their place), do we understand that we must then acknowledge that in Christ's death their sins have been purged and there is now reconciliation between them and God? In this case, we have universalism: All people are already saved and there is no need for hell.

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